HAZWOPER Technician

Practice Exam

Knowledge Check

Page 1 of 5

1. If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:

notify law enforcement.

set up a decon zone.

sample themselves to determine the contaminant.

follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.

2. The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:

can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.

is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.

is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

3. Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?

4. If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:

the IC is no longer needed.

the IAP is effective.

responders should withdraw immediately.

the incident is destabilizing.

5. The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.

opposite

inside

upwind

downwind

6. In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:

use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.

monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.

perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.

gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

7. The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:

dilution.

chemical degradation.

brushing and scraping.

evaporation.

8. The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.

identify

contain

destroy

preserve

9. How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?

EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.

EMS PPE includes a sidearm.

EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.

EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.

10. What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?

Technical decon should be set up.

Responders should undergo decon.

Victims should be identified.

Victims should be instructed to disrobe.

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11. Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?

Red

Yellow

Orange

Green

12. Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?

Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings

Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat

Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.

The conversion of one substance to another

13. Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?

Cryogenic

High pressure

Low pressure

Nonpressure

14. One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:

Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.

information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.

the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.

Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.

15. Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?

APR

IDLH

CPC

SCBA

16. The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.

fuel

autoignition

oxygen

activation

17. Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.

thermal

mechanical

radiological

chemical

18. A highway vehicle without a placard:

may still be carrying hazardous materials.

is illegal.

should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.

will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.

19. The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.

environmental

cellular

external

organ

20. The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:

the local terrain and available waterways.

how much media coverage is involved.

the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.

temperature and wind conditions.

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21. What type of incident requires unified command?

Level III

Level IV

Level I

Level II

22. Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:

unavoidable risks.

potential site hazards.

variables to eliminate.

potential ignition sources.

23. What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?

Increased chaos on scene

Size-up becomes unnecessary

Decreased accountability

Effective command and control

24. What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?

A leave of absence

Exposure records

Exposure justification

Immediate hospitalization

25. If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:

decontaminated.

destroyed.

kept away from victims.

isolated.

26. Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?

Rickettsias

Biological toxins

Bacteria

Viruses

27. A Level II incident:

is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.

does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.

requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.

will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.

28. Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?

Four-digit ID number

Placard

Marking

Label

29. In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:

use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.

gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.

perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.

30. Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?

Level C

Level D

Level A

Level B

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31. Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?

Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.

Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.

Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.

Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.

32. Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?

A sudden change in pressure

Consistent temperatures

Black smoke

Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.

33. Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:

sudden gastrointestinal distress.

itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.

immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.

delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.

34. Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?

The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages

The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages

The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances

The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages

35. What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?

Sorption

Absorption

Resorption

Adsorption

36. Decontamination usually takes place within the:

cold zone.

command zone.

warm zone.

hot zone.

37. The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:

apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.

package and triage them appropriately.

make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.

thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.

38. What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?

Stress

Exposure

Dispersion

Release

39. Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?

kPa

Atmospheres

psig

40. What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?

Plume

Particulate

Cloud

Hemispheric

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41. Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?

It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.

Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.

Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.

Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.

42. Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:

size-up.

hazard assessment.

preincident planning.

safety checks.

43. Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials?

Label

Four-digit ID number

Placard

Marking

44. When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:

shelter in place.

evacuation.

on-scene debriefing.

progress reports.

45. The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:

radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.

energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.

dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.

wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.

46. The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:

fire and rescue operations.

emergency responders entering the hot zone.

civilian and emergency responder victims.

all emergency services organizations.

47. What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?

RIBC

Nonbulk

FIBC

Liquid

48. What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?

Catalyst

Inhibitor

Contamination

Fuel

49. MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:

black, heat-absorbing paint.

multiple compartments.

large hemispherical heads on both ends.

large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.

50. A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):

National Response Framework (NRF).

National Incident Management System (NIMS).

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).

Incident Management System (IMS).

HAZWOPER Technician

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