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HAZWOPER Technician
Practice Exam
Knowledge Check
Page 1 of 5
1.
Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?
SCBA
CPC
IDLH
APR
2.
The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:
thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.
make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.
package and triage them appropriately.
apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.
3.
Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.
radiological
mechanical
thermal
chemical
4.
What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?
RIBC
Nonbulk
FIBC
Liquid
5.
Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?
Biological toxins
Rickettsias
Bacteria
Viruses
6.
MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:
large hemispherical heads on both ends.
black, heat-absorbing paint.
large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.
multiple compartments.
7.
If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:
isolated.
decontaminated.
destroyed.
kept away from victims.
8.
In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:
perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.
monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.
use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.
gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
9.
Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?
Level B
Level C
Level A
Level D
10.
What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?
Adsorption
Absorption
Resorption
Sorption
Page 2 of 5
11.
Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?
C
A
B
D
12.
What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?
Stress
Dispersion
Exposure
Release
13.
What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?
Decreased accountability
Size-up becomes unnecessary
Effective command and control
Increased chaos on scene
14.
A Level II incident:
is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.
will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.
does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.
requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.
15.
Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:
preincident planning.
safety checks.
hazard assessment.
size-up.
16.
Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?
Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.
It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.
Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.
Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.
17.
If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:
the IAP is effective.
responders should withdraw immediately.
the incident is destabilizing.
the IC is no longer needed.
18.
A highway vehicle without a placard:
should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.
is illegal.
may still be carrying hazardous materials.
will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.
19.
Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?
The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages
The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages
The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages
The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances
20.
How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?
EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.
EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.
EMS PPE includes a sidearm.
EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.
Page 3 of 5
21.
Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?
Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.
Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings
Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat
The conversion of one substance to another
22.
Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:
itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.
delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.
immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.
sudden gastrointestinal distress.
23.
Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?
kPa
Atmospheres
kJ
psig
24.
What type of incident requires unified command?
Level II
Level IV
Level I
Level III
25.
Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?
Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.
Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.
Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.
Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.
26.
Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?
Yellow
Red
Green
Orange
27.
The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:
dilution.
chemical degradation.
brushing and scraping.
evaporation.
28.
Decontamination usually takes place within the:
warm zone.
hot zone.
cold zone.
command zone.
29.
What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?
Cloud
Plume
Particulate
Hemispheric
30.
What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?
Exposure justification
A leave of absence
Exposure records
Immediate hospitalization
Page 4 of 5
31.
The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:
dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.
energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.
wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.
radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.
32.
What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?
Victims should be identified.
Victims should be instructed to disrobe.
Responders should undergo decon.
Technical decon should be set up.
33.
Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials?
Four-digit ID number
Placard
Label
Marking
34.
The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:
is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.
is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.
35.
Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?
Low pressure
Cryogenic
Nonpressure
High pressure
36.
Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:
potential site hazards.
unavoidable risks.
potential ignition sources.
variables to eliminate.
37.
One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:
the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.
Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.
Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.
information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.
38.
If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:
notify law enforcement.
follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.
sample themselves to determine the contaminant.
set up a decon zone.
39.
What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?
Contamination
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Fuel
40.
When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:
progress reports.
on-scene debriefing.
evacuation.
shelter in place.
Page 5 of 5
41.
The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:
the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.
the local terrain and available waterways.
temperature and wind conditions.
how much media coverage is involved.
42.
Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?
Marking
Placard
Four-digit ID number
Label
43.
The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.
cellular
external
organ
environmental
44.
In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:
monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.
gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.
perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.
45.
The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.
identify
preserve
destroy
contain
46.
Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?
Consistent temperatures
A sudden change in pressure
Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.
Black smoke
47.
The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.
autoignition
fuel
oxygen
activation
48.
A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):
National Response Framework (NRF).
Incident Management System (IMS).
National Incident Management System (NIMS).
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).
49.
The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:
civilian and emergency responder victims.
all emergency services organizations.
emergency responders entering the hot zone.
fire and rescue operations.
50.
The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.
opposite
upwind
inside
downwind
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