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HAZWOPER Technician
Practice Exam
Knowledge Check
Page 1 of 5
1.
The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:
dilution.
brushing and scraping.
chemical degradation.
evaporation.
2.
Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?
IDLH
CPC
SCBA
APR
3.
What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?
Exposure records
Immediate hospitalization
A leave of absence
Exposure justification
4.
Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.
thermal
mechanical
chemical
radiological
5.
Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?
Yellow
Red
Green
Orange
6.
The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.
organ
cellular
environmental
external
7.
In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:
monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.
perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.
gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.
8.
What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?
Nonbulk
FIBC
Liquid
RIBC
9.
If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:
set up a decon zone.
follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.
sample themselves to determine the contaminant.
notify law enforcement.
10.
Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?
The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages
The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages
The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances
The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages
Page 2 of 5
11.
What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Fuel
Contamination
12.
The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:
civilian and emergency responder victims.
all emergency services organizations.
emergency responders entering the hot zone.
fire and rescue operations.
13.
Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?
Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.
Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings
Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat
The conversion of one substance to another
14.
Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials?
Placard
Four-digit ID number
Label
Marking
15.
The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:
the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.
the local terrain and available waterways.
how much media coverage is involved.
temperature and wind conditions.
16.
Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:
unavoidable risks.
potential site hazards.
variables to eliminate.
potential ignition sources.
17.
Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?
Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.
Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.
Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.
Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.
18.
The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:
wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.
dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.
radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.
energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.
19.
If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:
decontaminated.
destroyed.
isolated.
kept away from victims.
20.
Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?
B
C
A
D
Page 3 of 5
21.
What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?
Technical decon should be set up.
Victims should be identified.
Responders should undergo decon.
Victims should be instructed to disrobe.
22.
A Level II incident:
is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.
will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.
does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.
requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.
23.
One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:
Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.
the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.
information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.
Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.
24.
In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:
perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.
gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.
use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.
25.
Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:
safety checks.
preincident planning.
size-up.
hazard assessment.
26.
If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:
the incident is destabilizing.
responders should withdraw immediately.
the IAP is effective.
the IC is no longer needed.
27.
Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?
Black smoke
Consistent temperatures
A sudden change in pressure
Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.
28.
A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):
Incident Management System (IMS).
National Incident Management System (NIMS).
National Response Framework (NRF).
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).
29.
How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?
EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.
EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.
EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.
EMS PPE includes a sidearm.
30.
The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.
preserve
identify
destroy
contain
Page 4 of 5
31.
Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?
Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.
It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.
Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.
Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.
32.
The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:
apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.
make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.
package and triage them appropriately.
thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.
33.
What type of incident requires unified command?
Level II
Level III
Level IV
Level I
34.
Decontamination usually takes place within the:
cold zone.
hot zone.
command zone.
warm zone.
35.
Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?
Four-digit ID number
Label
Marking
Placard
36.
Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?
Level D
Level C
Level A
Level B
37.
A highway vehicle without a placard:
is illegal.
may still be carrying hazardous materials.
should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.
will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.
38.
The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:
is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.
can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.
is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
39.
What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?
Resorption
Absorption
Adsorption
Sorption
40.
What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?
Exposure
Release
Dispersion
Stress
Page 5 of 5
41.
MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:
large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.
large hemispherical heads on both ends.
black, heat-absorbing paint.
multiple compartments.
42.
Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:
itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.
immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.
sudden gastrointestinal distress.
delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.
43.
What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?
Cloud
Hemispheric
Plume
Particulate
44.
The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.
inside
opposite
downwind
upwind
45.
When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:
on-scene debriefing.
evacuation.
shelter in place.
progress reports.
46.
Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?
Cryogenic
Nonpressure
High pressure
Low pressure
47.
Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?
Biological toxins
Viruses
Bacteria
Rickettsias
48.
What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?
Effective command and control
Size-up becomes unnecessary
Increased chaos on scene
Decreased accountability
49.
Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?
Atmospheres
kJ
psig
kPa
50.
The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.
autoignition
fuel
oxygen
activation
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