HAZWOPER Technician

Practice Exam

Knowledge Check

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1. The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:

wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.

dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.

radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.

energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.

2. If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:

sample themselves to determine the contaminant.

set up a decon zone.

notify law enforcement.

follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.

3. Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?

4. Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:

preincident planning.

hazard assessment.

safety checks.

size-up.

5. The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:

is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.

is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.

6. The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.

organ

cellular

external

environmental

7. What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?

Inhibitor

Fuel

Catalyst

Contamination

8. What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?

Victims should be identified.

Responders should undergo decon.

Victims should be instructed to disrobe.

Technical decon should be set up.

9. Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?

High pressure

Nonpressure

Cryogenic

Low pressure

10. Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?

The conversion of one substance to another

Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.

Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings

Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat

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11. The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.

fuel

autoignition

oxygen

activation

12. Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?

Bacteria

Biological toxins

Rickettsias

Viruses

13. The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:

how much media coverage is involved.

the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.

the local terrain and available waterways.

temperature and wind conditions.

14. What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?

Plume

Hemispheric

Cloud

Particulate

15. One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:

Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.

Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.

the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.

information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.

16. The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:

chemical degradation.

evaporation.

brushing and scraping.

dilution.

17. If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:

kept away from victims.

destroyed.

decontaminated.

isolated.

18. Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?

Marking

Placard

Four-digit ID number

Label

19. What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?

Nonbulk

RIBC

Liquid

FIBC

20. Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?

Orange

Yellow

Green

Red

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21. Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.

chemical

thermal

mechanical

radiological

22. What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?

Effective command and control

Increased chaos on scene

Size-up becomes unnecessary

Decreased accountability

23. A highway vehicle without a placard:

is illegal.

should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.

may still be carrying hazardous materials.

will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.

24. Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?

IDLH

SCBA

CPC

APR

25. Decontamination usually takes place within the:

hot zone.

cold zone.

warm zone.

command zone.

26. Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?

Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.

Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.

It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.

Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.

27. How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?

EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.

EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.

EMS PPE includes a sidearm.

EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.

28. MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:

black, heat-absorbing paint.

large hemispherical heads on both ends.

multiple compartments.

large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.

29. Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?

psig

Atmospheres

kPa

30. The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.

identify

contain

destroy

preserve

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31. What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?

A leave of absence

Exposure justification

Immediate hospitalization

Exposure records

32. The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:

package and triage them appropriately.

apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.

thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.

make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.

33. What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?

Absorption

Sorption

Adsorption

Resorption

34. Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:

itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.

immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.

sudden gastrointestinal distress.

delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.

35. Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?

The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages

The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages

The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages

The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances

36. When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:

on-scene debriefing.

progress reports.

shelter in place.

evacuation.

37. Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials?

Label

Placard

Four-digit ID number

Marking

38. In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:

gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.

perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.

use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.

39. Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:

unavoidable risks.

potential ignition sources.

variables to eliminate.

potential site hazards.

40. A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):

National Response Framework (NRF).

Incident Management System (IMS).

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).

National Incident Management System (NIMS).

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41. A Level II incident:

will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.

does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.

requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.

is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.

42. The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:

fire and rescue operations.

civilian and emergency responder victims.

emergency responders entering the hot zone.

all emergency services organizations.

43. Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?

Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.

Black smoke

Consistent temperatures

A sudden change in pressure

44. What type of incident requires unified command?

Level II

Level I

Level III

Level IV

45. Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?

Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.

Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.

Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.

Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.

46. What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?

Stress

Dispersion

Release

Exposure

47. Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?

Level C

Level D

Level B

Level A

48. The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.

upwind

opposite

downwind

inside

49. If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:

responders should withdraw immediately.

the IC is no longer needed.

the incident is destabilizing.

the IAP is effective.

50. In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders: