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HAZWOPER Technician
Practice Exam
Knowledge Check
Page 1 of 5
1.
What type of incident requires unified command?
Level III
Level II
Level I
Level IV
2.
Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials?
Marking
Label
Four-digit ID number
Placard
3.
The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.
contain
destroy
identify
preserve
4.
If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:
notify law enforcement.
sample themselves to determine the contaminant.
set up a decon zone.
follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.
5.
One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:
the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.
information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.
Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.
Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.
6.
The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:
brushing and scraping.
chemical degradation.
evaporation.
dilution.
7.
Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?
C
D
B
A
8.
Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?
Level B
Level C
Level D
Level A
9.
If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:
the IAP is effective.
responders should withdraw immediately.
the incident is destabilizing.
the IC is no longer needed.
10.
In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:
gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.
monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.
use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.
Page 2 of 5
11.
A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).
National Response Framework (NRF).
National Incident Management System (NIMS).
Incident Management System (IMS).
12.
Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?
The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances
The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages
The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages
The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages
13.
What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?
Release
Stress
Dispersion
Exposure
14.
How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?
EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.
EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.
EMS PPE includes a sidearm.
EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.
15.
The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:
all emergency services organizations.
emergency responders entering the hot zone.
civilian and emergency responder victims.
fire and rescue operations.
16.
Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?
Biological toxins
Viruses
Bacteria
Rickettsias
17.
Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?
Four-digit ID number
Label
Marking
Placard
18.
A highway vehicle without a placard:
may still be carrying hazardous materials.
should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.
will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.
is illegal.
19.
Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?
Atmospheres
psig
kJ
kPa
20.
The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:
is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.
is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.
is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
Page 3 of 5
21.
The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:
the local terrain and available waterways.
temperature and wind conditions.
the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.
how much media coverage is involved.
22.
The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.
environmental
cellular
external
organ
23.
Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?
Yellow
Orange
Red
Green
24.
Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:
variables to eliminate.
unavoidable risks.
potential site hazards.
potential ignition sources.
25.
Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?
Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.
Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.
It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.
Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.
26.
Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:
delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.
sudden gastrointestinal distress.
itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.
immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.
27.
Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:
size-up.
safety checks.
hazard assessment.
preincident planning.
28.
In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:
monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.
gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.
perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.
29.
What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?
Victims should be identified.
Responders should undergo decon.
Technical decon should be set up.
Victims should be instructed to disrobe.
30.
What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Fuel
Contamination
Page 4 of 5
31.
Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?
Cryogenic
Low pressure
Nonpressure
High pressure
32.
When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:
progress reports.
evacuation.
shelter in place.
on-scene debriefing.
33.
What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?
Size-up becomes unnecessary
Decreased accountability
Effective command and control
Increased chaos on scene
34.
Decontamination usually takes place within the:
cold zone.
command zone.
hot zone.
warm zone.
35.
What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?
Nonbulk
FIBC
RIBC
Liquid
36.
If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:
isolated.
decontaminated.
destroyed.
kept away from victims.
37.
A Level II incident:
will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.
requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.
is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.
does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.
38.
MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:
large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.
multiple compartments.
black, heat-absorbing paint.
large hemispherical heads on both ends.
39.
Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?
SCBA
APR
CPC
IDLH
40.
The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.
fuel
oxygen
activation
autoignition
Page 5 of 5
41.
What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?
Exposure justification
Exposure records
A leave of absence
Immediate hospitalization
42.
The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:
dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.
energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.
radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.
wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.
43.
Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?
Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.
Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.
Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.
Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.
44.
Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?
A sudden change in pressure
Consistent temperatures
Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.
Black smoke
45.
What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?
Absorption
Sorption
Resorption
Adsorption
46.
The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.
inside
downwind
upwind
opposite
47.
Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?
Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat
Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.
Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings
The conversion of one substance to another
48.
What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?
Hemispheric
Cloud
Particulate
Plume
49.
Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.
thermal
radiological
chemical
mechanical
50.
The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:
package and triage them appropriately.
apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.
thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.
make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.
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