HAZWOPER Technician

Practice Exam

Knowledge Check

Page 1 of 5

1. Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?

Green

Orange

Yellow

Red

2. Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?

Level C

Level D

Level A

Level B

3. One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:

Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.

Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.

information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.

the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.

4. The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:

package and triage them appropriately.

apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.

thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.

make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.

5. A highway vehicle without a placard:

is illegal.

should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.

will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.

may still be carrying hazardous materials.

6. Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?

Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.

Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.

It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.

Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.

7. What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?

Cloud

Particulate

Hemispheric

Plume

8. Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:

itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.

immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.

delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.

sudden gastrointestinal distress.

9. What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?

Victims should be instructed to disrobe.

Responders should undergo decon.

Technical decon should be set up.

Victims should be identified.

10. Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?

IDLH

SCBA

CPC

APR

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11. What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?

Stress

Exposure

Dispersion

Release

12. What type of incident requires unified command?

Level III

Level IV

Level I

Level II

13. What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?

RIBC

FIBC

Nonbulk

Liquid

14. Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?

kPa

Atmospheres

psig

15. If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:

set up a decon zone.

notify law enforcement.

sample themselves to determine the contaminant.

follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.

16. Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.

radiological

mechanical

thermal

chemical

17. Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials?

Four-digit ID number

Marking

Placard

Label

18. Decontamination usually takes place within the:

cold zone.

hot zone.

warm zone.

command zone.

19. The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:

brushing and scraping.

dilution.

chemical degradation.

evaporation.

20. The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.

cellular

organ

environmental

external

Page 3 of 5

21. The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.

fuel

autoignition

oxygen

activation

22. Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?

Bacteria

Biological toxins

Rickettsias

Viruses

23. The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:

emergency responders entering the hot zone.

all emergency services organizations.

civilian and emergency responder victims.

fire and rescue operations.

24. In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:

monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.

use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.

gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.

25. The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:

is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.

is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.

is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

26. Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?

Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.

Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.

Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.

Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.

27. What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?

Fuel

Inhibitor

Catalyst

Contamination

28. How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?

EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.

EMS PPE includes a sidearm.

EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.

EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.

29. When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:

on-scene debriefing.

shelter in place.

evacuation.

progress reports.

30. Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:

safety checks.

size-up.

preincident planning.

hazard assessment.

Page 4 of 5

31. A Level II incident:

requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.

does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.

is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.

will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.

32. MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:

black, heat-absorbing paint.

large hemispherical heads on both ends.

large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.

multiple compartments.

33. Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?

A sudden change in pressure

Black smoke

Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.

Consistent temperatures

34. The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.

inside

downwind

opposite

upwind

35. If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:

responders should withdraw immediately.

the IC is no longer needed.

the IAP is effective.

the incident is destabilizing.

36. The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.

contain

preserve

identify

destroy

37. What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?

Exposure records

Immediate hospitalization

A leave of absence

Exposure justification

38. If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:

isolated.

decontaminated.

kept away from victims.

destroyed.

39. The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:

radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.

wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.

dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.

energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.

40. A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):

National Incident Management System (NIMS).

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).

National Response Framework (NRF).

Incident Management System (IMS).

Page 5 of 5

41. In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:

gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.

use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.

perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.

42. The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:

the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.

the local terrain and available waterways.

temperature and wind conditions.

how much media coverage is involved.

43. Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?

The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages

The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages

The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages

The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances

44. Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?

Low pressure

Nonpressure

High pressure

Cryogenic

45. What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?

Effective command and control

Decreased accountability

Size-up becomes unnecessary

Increased chaos on scene

46. Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?

47. Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:

variables to eliminate.

potential site hazards.

potential ignition sources.

unavoidable risks.

48. Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?

Four-digit ID number

Placard

Label

Marking

49. What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?

Resorption

Adsorption

Sorption

Absorption

50. Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?

The conversion of one substance to another

Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.

Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat

Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings

HAZWOPER Technician

Practice Exam

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