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HAZWOPER Technician
Practice Exam
Knowledge Check
Page 1 of 5
1.
The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:
can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.
is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.
is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
2.
Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?
The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances
The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages
The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages
The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages
3.
If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:
follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.
sample themselves to determine the contaminant.
set up a decon zone.
notify law enforcement.
4.
Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?
Bacteria
Viruses
Rickettsias
Biological toxins
5.
What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?
Release
Dispersion
Exposure
Stress
6.
Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:
immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.
sudden gastrointestinal distress.
delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.
itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.
7.
A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):
National Incident Management System (NIMS).
National Response Framework (NRF).
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).
Incident Management System (IMS).
8.
The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:
evaporation.
brushing and scraping.
chemical degradation.
dilution.
9.
The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.
opposite
downwind
upwind
inside
10.
What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?
Responders should undergo decon.
Technical decon should be set up.
Victims should be instructed to disrobe.
Victims should be identified.
Page 2 of 5
11.
What type of incident requires unified command?
Level II
Level I
Level IV
Level III
12.
Decontamination usually takes place within the:
command zone.
warm zone.
cold zone.
hot zone.
13.
Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:
potential ignition sources.
potential site hazards.
variables to eliminate.
unavoidable risks.
14.
What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?
Effective command and control
Increased chaos on scene
Decreased accountability
Size-up becomes unnecessary
15.
Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?
A sudden change in pressure
Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.
Black smoke
Consistent temperatures
16.
Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:
size-up.
safety checks.
hazard assessment.
preincident planning.
17.
In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:
use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.
monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.
gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.
18.
The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:
temperature and wind conditions.
the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.
how much media coverage is involved.
the local terrain and available waterways.
19.
If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:
isolated.
kept away from victims.
decontaminated.
destroyed.
20.
What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?
A leave of absence
Exposure records
Exposure justification
Immediate hospitalization
Page 3 of 5
21.
The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.
identify
destroy
contain
preserve
22.
The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:
energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.
radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.
dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.
wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.
23.
In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:
use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.
gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.
perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.
24.
A highway vehicle without a placard:
may still be carrying hazardous materials.
is illegal.
should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.
will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.
25.
Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?
CPC
IDLH
APR
SCBA
26.
Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?
Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.
Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.
Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.
Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.
27.
Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?
Green
Yellow
Orange
Red
28.
Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?
Label
Placard
Marking
Four-digit ID number
29.
What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?
Nonbulk
RIBC
Liquid
FIBC
30.
The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:
all emergency services organizations.
fire and rescue operations.
civilian and emergency responder victims.
emergency responders entering the hot zone.
Page 4 of 5
31.
One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:
Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.
Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.
information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.
the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.
32.
If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:
responders should withdraw immediately.
the IAP is effective.
the IC is no longer needed.
the incident is destabilizing.
33.
Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?
C
D
B
A
34.
When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:
progress reports.
shelter in place.
on-scene debriefing.
evacuation.
35.
What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?
Absorption
Sorption
Resorption
Adsorption
36.
MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:
multiple compartments.
large hemispherical heads on both ends.
black, heat-absorbing paint.
large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.
37.
The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.
cellular
external
organ
environmental
38.
What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?
Hemispheric
Cloud
Particulate
Plume
39.
Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?
Level A
Level B
Level C
Level D
40.
Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.
radiological
chemical
thermal
mechanical
Page 5 of 5
41.
A Level II incident:
is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.
does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.
will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.
requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.
42.
Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?
It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.
Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.
Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.
Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.
43.
What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?
Contamination
Fuel
Inhibitor
Catalyst
44.
The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.
autoignition
activation
fuel
oxygen
45.
Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials?
Four-digit ID number
Label
Placard
Marking
46.
Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?
The conversion of one substance to another
Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.
Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings
Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat
47.
Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?
Nonpressure
Cryogenic
Low pressure
High pressure
48.
The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:
make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.
apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.
package and triage them appropriately.
thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.
49.
How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?
EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.
EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.
EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.
EMS PPE includes a sidearm.
50.
Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?
psig
Atmospheres
kJ
kPa
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