HAZWOPER Technician

Practice Exam

Knowledge Check

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1. The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:

chemical degradation.

dilution.

brushing and scraping.

evaporation.

2. Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?

SCBA

APR

CPC

IDLH

3. Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:

potential ignition sources.

unavoidable risks.

variables to eliminate.

potential site hazards.

4. Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?

Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.

Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.

Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.

Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.

5. If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:

notify law enforcement.

follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.

set up a decon zone.

sample themselves to determine the contaminant.

6. Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?

Bacteria

Viruses

Biological toxins

Rickettsias

7. Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?

Four-digit ID number

Placard

Marking

Label

8. Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.

radiological

thermal

chemical

mechanical

9. The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.

downwind

inside

upwind

opposite

10. If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:

isolated.

destroyed.

decontaminated.

kept away from victims.

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11. Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?

Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.

Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat

Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings

The conversion of one substance to another

12. Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?

Level A

Level D

Level B

Level C

13. The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:

temperature and wind conditions.

the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.

how much media coverage is involved.

the local terrain and available waterways.

14. The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.

environmental

external

organ

cellular

15. What type of incident requires unified command?

Level I

Level III

Level II

Level IV

16. What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?

RIBC

Nonbulk

FIBC

Liquid

17. MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:

black, heat-absorbing paint.

multiple compartments.

large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.

large hemispherical heads on both ends.

18. How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?

EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.

EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.

EMS PPE includes a sidearm.

EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.

19. Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?

Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.

Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.

It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.

Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.

20. Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:

itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.

immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.

delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.

sudden gastrointestinal distress.

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21. One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:

information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.

Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.

Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.

the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.

22. What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?

Fuel

Contamination

Catalyst

Inhibitor

23. A Level II incident:

will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.

is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.

does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.

requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.

24. In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:

perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.

gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.

monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.

25. What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?

Immediate hospitalization

Exposure justification

Exposure records

A leave of absence

26. A highway vehicle without a placard:

may still be carrying hazardous materials.

should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.

will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.

is illegal.

27. Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?

Black smoke

Consistent temperatures

A sudden change in pressure

Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.

28. Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?

The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages

The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages

The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages

The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances

29. If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:

the incident is destabilizing.

the IAP is effective.

responders should withdraw immediately.

the IC is no longer needed.

30. What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?

Dispersion

Exposure

Release

Stress

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31. Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?

32. The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:

emergency responders entering the hot zone.

fire and rescue operations.

civilian and emergency responder victims.

all emergency services organizations.

33. What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?

Adsorption

Absorption

Resorption

Sorption

34. The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:

apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.

package and triage them appropriately.

thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.

make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.

35. The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.

destroy

identify

preserve

contain

36. Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?

High pressure

Nonpressure

Cryogenic

Low pressure

37. Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?

kPa

psig

Atmospheres

38. When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:

on-scene debriefing.

shelter in place.

progress reports.

evacuation.

39. A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):

National Incident Management System (NIMS).

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).

National Response Framework (NRF).

Incident Management System (IMS).

40. Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?

Yellow

Red

Green

Orange

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41. What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?

Hemispheric

Particulate

Cloud

Plume

42. The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.

fuel

oxygen

activation

autoignition

43. Decontamination usually takes place within the:

hot zone.

cold zone.

warm zone.

command zone.

44. The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:

is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.

is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.

is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

45. The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:

wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.

energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.

radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.

dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.

46. What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?

Victims should be identified.

Responders should undergo decon.

Victims should be instructed to disrobe.

Technical decon should be set up.

47. What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?

Effective command and control

Increased chaos on scene

Decreased accountability

Size-up becomes unnecessary

48. Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:

hazard assessment.

safety checks.

preincident planning.

size-up.

49. In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders: