HAZWOPER Technician

Practice Exam

Knowledge Check

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1. A Level II incident:

will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.

requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.

does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.

is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.

2. Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate?

Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.

Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents.

Emergency decontamination includes the transfer of a hazardous material in greater than acceptable quantities.

Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.

3. Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause:

sudden gastrointestinal distress.

immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations.

delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.

itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions.

4. The basic principles of decon are get it off, keep it off, and _____ it.

destroy

preserve

contain

identify

5. A highway vehicle without a placard:

should be stopped and inspected for terrorist activity.

will NOT be carrying hazardous materials.

is illegal.

may still be carrying hazardous materials.

6. What will increase the rate of polymerization and decrease the activation energy necessary for further polymerization?

Fuel

Catalyst

Inhibitor

Contamination

7. What is the first step in the sequence proposed by the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)?

Exposure

Dispersion

Release

Stress

8. Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging?

Four-digit ID number

Marking

Placard

Label

9. The aim of technical decon for nonambulatory victims is to:

thoroughly decontaminate them before transferring them to EMS.

package and triage them appropriately.

apply first aid and return them to an ambulatory state.

make sure they understand the delayed health risks of the hazardous material.

10. The decontamination site should be situated _____ of the hot zone.

upwind

downwind

inside

opposite

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11. Which type of biological/etiological hazard spreads mostly through the bite of infected arthropods?

Biological toxins

Rickettsias

Bacteria

Viruses

12. In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:

use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.

monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.

perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.

gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

13. The decision of whether to perform emergency or technical decon is determined based on the hazardous material involved and:

how much media coverage is involved.

the urgency in removing the victim from the contaminated environment.

the local terrain and available waterways.

temperature and wind conditions.

14. What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents?

Decreased accountability

Increased chaos on scene

Size-up becomes unnecessary

Effective command and control

15. Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials?

Four-digit ID number

Marking

Placard

Label

16. If service canines are brought into the hot zone, they must be:

isolated.

destroyed.

kept away from victims.

decontaminated.

17. If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that:

the IAP is effective.

the IC is no longer needed.

responders should withdraw immediately.

the incident is destabilizing.

18. The three mechanisms of harm in a container hazardous materials incident are:

wind speed, barometric pressure, and time of day.

dispersion patterns, rapid release, and detonation.

energy release, corrosivity, and toxicity.

radioactivity, pressure, and temperature.

19. MC-331 cargo tanks typically have bolted manways, inlet and outlet valves, and:

large hemispherical heads on both ends.

multiple compartments.

large bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.

black, heat-absorbing paint.

20. What type of dispersion pattern forms an irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release?

Particulate

Hemispheric

Cloud

Plume

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21. Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning?

Red

Green

Yellow

Orange

22. Which of the following BEST describes a unit of pressure relative to the surrounding atmosphere?

kPa

psig

Atmospheres

23. The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to:

emergency responders entering the hot zone.

fire and rescue operations.

all emergency services organizations.

civilian and emergency responder victims.

24. Assessing the incident's conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called:

preincident planning.

safety checks.

hazard assessment.

size-up.

25. The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:

is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.

is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.

can guide responders' actions at hazmat incidents.

26. Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH?

Level B

Level A

Level C

Level D

27. If a first responder becomes contaminated before realizing the situation, they should immediately withdraw and:

follow local procedures for emergency decontamination.

set up a decon zone.

notify law enforcement.

sample themselves to determine the contaminant.

28. What should happen before entry personnel enter the hot zone?

Technical decon should be set up.

Victims should be identified.

Responders should undergo decon.

Victims should be instructed to disrobe.

29. Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations?

The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances

The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages

The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages

The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages

30. Which cargo tank truck almost always carries flammable/combustible liquids such as gasoline, fuel oil, or alcohol?

Nonpressure

Cryogenic

High pressure

Low pressure

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31. Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas?

APR

IDLH

CPC

SCBA

32. Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials?

The conversion of one substance to another

Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved.

Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat

Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings

33. Decontamination usually takes place within the:

command zone.

cold zone.

hot zone.

warm zone.

34. What type of containers are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks, and also called bulk bags, bulk sacks, or tote bags?

FIBC

RIBC

Liquid

Nonbulk

35. Collision, impact, or internal overpressure are common causes of damage to a container caused by _____ energy.

chemical

mechanical

thermal

radiological

36. When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is:

on-scene debriefing.

progress reports.

evacuation.

shelter in place.

37. The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron acts as the _____ source for the reaction.

autoignition

activation

fuel

oxygen

38. Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?

A sudden change in pressure

Black smoke

Consistent temperatures

Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector.

39. How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?

EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.

EMS PPE includes a sidearm.

EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.

EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.

40. Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate?

Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.

Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.

Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist.

It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.

Page 5 of 5

41. The damaging effects of ionizing radiation occur at the _____ level.

organ

cellular

external

environmental

42. Overhead power lines, highway traffic, and rail lines are examples of:

potential site hazards.

variables to eliminate.

potential ignition sources.

unavoidable risks.

43. A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an):

Incident Management System (IMS).

National Response Framework (NRF).

National Incident Management System (NIMS).

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).

44. The technical decontamination process that uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:

evaporation.

chemical degradation.

brushing and scraping.

dilution.

45. What type of incident requires unified command?

Level III

Level I

Level II

Level IV

46. One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that:

Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled.

information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.

Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials.

the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system.

47. What is required for all first responders who have been exposed or potentially exposed to hazardous materials?

Exposure records

Immediate hospitalization

Exposure justification

A leave of absence

48. What is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material?

Absorption

Resorption

Adsorption

Sorption

49. In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:

gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to mitigate the incident.

monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and continue throughout the incident.

use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be taken to mitigate the incident.

50. Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection?

HAZWOPER Technician

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